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    An argument is only valid if the words involved retain th... — Carmelics
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    Challenges→Any theory that explains 'good' as an optative in unasserted contexts would render obviously valid arguments invalid by treating them as equivocal

    An argument is only valid if the words involved retain the same meanings throughout the inference

    Philosophy of LanguageTruth & Knowledge
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    Philosophy of LanguageTruth & Knowledge

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    A shift in meaning within an argument constitutes the fallacy of equivocationAny theory that explains 'good' as an optative in unasserted contexts would rend...If 'good' functions as an optative in unasserted contexts (e.g., premise (i)) bu...

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    An argument is valid if its conclusion comes out true under every inte...83%An argument is valid in a model only when in any point at which the pr...81%Le Poidevin's argument may be invalid even if both of its premises are...81%The argument showing sentence meaning is not identical with speaker me...81%

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    SEP: russell-moral
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    In this argument “X is good” would have one meaning in premise (i)—in which it would be an optative—and another in premise (ii)—in which it would be a creature of some other semantic kind. (I have emphasized the point by putting the first occurrence in italics and the second in bold.) But an argument is only valid if the words involved retain the same meanings throughout the inference. If not, we have an instance of the fallacy of equivocation. So it looks as if any attempt to deal with Geach’s

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