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    Carmelics

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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Gold's negative results on language learnability are not merely a reflection of the underdetermination of theories by finite bodies of evidence

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    1 perspective
    Reason for
    ?
    • 1.There exist infinite classes of infinite languages that are identifiable from text
      ?

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    • 2.If Gold's results were simply a consequence of underdetermination by finite evidence, no infinite class of infinite languages would be text-identifiable
      ?

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    • 3.The failure of text-identifiability for certain language classes differs from underdetermination in an important way
      ?

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