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    Carmelics

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    LoyalLoyalJusticeJustice
    Made withinDC&Austin
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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Kant's idealism should be called 'formal' or 'critical' idealism, not 'material' idealism

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    2 perspectives
    Reason for 1 of 2
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    • 1.Kant explicitly states in the Critique that 'objects conform to our cognition,' making mind constitutive of the structure of experience itself.
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    • 2.If the forms of intuition (space and time) are mind-dependent conditions for any possible object, then objects as experienced are ontologically dependent on mind.
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    • 3.A position that makes all experienced objects ontologically dependent on mental conditions is materially idealist, regardless of the label Kant preferred.
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    Reason for 2 of 2
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    • 1.Jacobi's critique established that Kant's thing-in-itself is incoherent: causation (a category) cannot apply beyond experience to ground the affection of the subject.
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    • 2.If the thing-in-itself is eliminable from a consistent reading of Kant, as Fichte and later Hegel argued, the remaining position collapses into subjective idealism.
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    • 3.A 'formal' idealism that cannot coherently maintain mind-independent things-in-themselves is functionally indistinguishable from material idealism.
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    Reasons Against

    1 perspective
    Reason against
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    • 1.Transcendental idealism identifies space and time with our forms of intuition
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    • 2.Transcendental idealism does not deny the reality of objects in space and time
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    • 3.Material idealism reduces all reality to ideas and the minds that have them
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