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    Carmelics

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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Kant's restriction of pure judgments of taste to form alone constitutes an implicit criticism of Herz's theory

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    1 perspective
    Reason for
    ?
    • 1.Herz accepted variation in taste as compatible with the objectivity of beauty by appealing to matter
      ?

      Think about whether this reason is strong or weak

    • 2.Kant restricted pure judgments of taste to form alone to guarantee unanimity rather than accepting variation
      ?

      Think about whether this reason is strong or weak

    • 3.These two positions are incompatible on the question of whether variation in taste is admissible
      ?

      Think about whether this reason is strong or weak

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