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    Carmelics

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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Non-linguistic arts sometimes express meanings and thoughts that are not (yet) linguistically articulable.

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    2 perspectives
    Reason for 1 of 2
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    • 1.What appears linguistically inarticulate in art is better explained as emotional arousal or perceptual salience, not as propositional content awaiting formulation.
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    • 2.Wittgenstein's private language argument entails that genuinely pre-linguistic 'meanings' lack the normative criteria required to count as meanings at all.
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    • 3.The retroactive linguistic articulation of artistic content (as in P1) does not establish that the content existed prior to its linguistic formulation.
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    Reason for 2 of 2
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    • 1.Nelson Goodman's symbol systems theory holds that artistic expression functions through denotation and exemplification within established symbol schemes, which are themselves rule-governed and thus linguistically articulable in principle.
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    • 2.If early Greek sculpture expressed religious ideas later articulated linguistically, the most parsimonious explanation is that the ideas were already present in shared social practices with implicit linguistic structure, not that they transcended language.
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    Reasons Against

    1 perspective
    Reason against
    ?
    • 1.Early Greek sculpture expressed religious ideas that only later came to be expressed linguistically.
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    • 2.If an art form can express content that precedes its linguistic formulation, then such content need not be linguistically articulable at the time of expression.
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