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    Carmelics

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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Rhetoric being the mode of knowledge most apt to moral sciences does not imply that rhetoric contributes to moral or political knowledge

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    1 perspective
    Reason for
    ?
    • 1.Moral and political knowledge is derived from the principles proper to ethics or politics, not from rhetoric
      ?

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    • 2.The aptness of a method of inquiry to a domain does not entail that the method generates the domain's foundational knowledge
      ?

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    Reasons Against

    2 perspectives
    Reason against 1 of 2
    ?
    • 1.Aristotle distinguishes episteme (scientific knowledge) from phronesis (practical wisdom), assigning rhetoric to persuasion, not cognitive justification.
      ?

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    • 2.Rhetoric operates through enthymemes and probable reasoning, which Aristotle explicitly contrasts with the demonstrative syllogisms that ground genuine scientific knowledge.
      ?

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    • 3.A discipline's instrumental aptness for communicating or examining a domain's conclusions leaves its epistemic foundations untouched and independently grounded.
      ?

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    Reason against 2 of 2
    ?
    • 1.Giles of Rome, following Aquinas, holds that each science draws on principles proper to itself, making external methods epistemically subordinate to domain-internal foundations.
      ?

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    • 2.The 'aptness' of rhetoric to moral sciences reflects the contingency and particularity of moral subject matter, not any generative role rhetoric plays in producing moral truths.
      ?

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