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    Carmelics

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    Made withinDC&Austin
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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that The syllogism 'if As are Bs and Bs are Cs, then As are Cs' is a perfect deduction in Aristotle's sense

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    2 perspectives
    Reason for 1 of 2
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    • 1.Aristotle's 'perfect' deductions are restricted to the four categorical syllogisms of the first figure (Barbara, Celarent, Darii, Ferio).
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    • 2.The form 'if As are Bs and Bs are Cs, then As are Cs' uses relational transitivity, not Aristotelian predication of universal affirmation in Barbara.
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    • 3.Without the precise 'All A is B / All B is C / therefore All A is C' quantified structure, the argument falls outside Aristotle's formal syllogistic.
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    Reason for 2 of 2
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    • 1.Aristotle in Prior Analytics I.2 grounds perfection in self-evidence via the dictum de omni, which requires specific subject-predicate containment relations.
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    • 2.Lukasiewicz and Patzig both demonstrate that Aristotelian syllogistic is a term logic where validity depends on predication, not hypothetical transitivity.
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    • 3.A deduction involving schematic transitivity ('As are Bs') without quantified categorical form is not obviously self-evident in the dictum de omni sense, requiring additional justification.
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    Reasons Against

    1 perspective
    Reason against
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    • 1.Anything taking the form 'if As are Bs and Bs are Cs, then As are Cs' is a deduction in Aristotle's sense
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    • 2.A perfect deduction is one whose validity needs no proof
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    • 3.The validity of this syllogistic form needs no proof and admits of no proof
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