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    Carmelics

    A reasoning platform. Break down any belief into clear reasons, explore both sides, and weigh the evidence honestly.

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    LoyalLoyalJusticeJustice
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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that The term 'homo' is properly common.

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    2 perspectives
    Reason for 1 of 2
    ?
    • 1.Singular terms like 'Socrates' signify individual substances directly, and 'homo' similarly picks out concrete individuals, not universals.
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    • 2.Ockham's razor demands we not posit common natures in re when individual substances suffice to explain predication of 'homo'.
      ?

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    • 3.If 'homo' signified a common nature existing in re, two humans would share a numerically identical entity, generating the absurdity of one thing being in two places.
      ?

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    Reason for 2 of 2
    ?
    • 1.Frege's distinction between sense and reference shows that a term's mode of signification does not entail the mind-independent existence of the entity it presents.
      ?

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    • 2.A term can signify in a universal mode through a general concept without that concept corresponding to a shared natura communis existing outside the mind.
      ?

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    Reasons Against

    1 perspective
    Reason against
    ?
    • 1.'Homo' signifies in a universal mode.
      ?

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    • 2.'Homo' signifies a common nature existing in re.
      ?

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