But suppose there is a difference between assessments of the value of works of art and assessments of whatever it is we might do with respect to works of art. Could it not be that either of those, as aims of reasoning, might be legitimate? Those who reject the “practical vs. theoretical reasoning” distinction on the grounds that all reasoning is means/ends, and who thus hold that whether a bit of reasoning is good or bad cannot be determined without first determining what the reasoner’s end is,