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    LoyalLoyalJusticeJustice
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    42
    Any form that has participants is one. — Carmelics
    Home/Modality & Possibility
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    Any form that has participants is one.

    Modality & PossibilityTruth & Knowledge
    ?Rate how convincing each reason is below to see the overall strength.
    1 reason for
    2 reasons against

    Reasons For

    1 perspective
    Reason for
    ?
    • 1.For any plurality P of F things, there is a form of F-ness by virtue of partaking of which each member of P is F.
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    • 2.The form of F-ness is 'one over many' in the sense that it is that by virtue of partaking of which each member of P is F.
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    • 3.Anything that is one 'over' many is (in some sense) one.
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    Reasons Against

    2 perspectives
    Reason against 1 of 2
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    • 1.A form may have participants without itself being numerically one — it could be a type or universal that is instantiated multiply without having singular identity.
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    • 2.Frege's distinction between concepts and objects shows that predicative entities (concepts) resist the kind of self-predication that would make them 'one' in the same sense as objects.
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    • 3.If 'oneness' is itself a form, then attributing oneness to every participating form generates a vicious regress parallel to the Third Man Argument Parmenides himself raises against Plato.
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    Reason against 2 of 2
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    • 1.Aristotle argues in Metaphysics Z that universals are not substances and therefore lack the determinate unity that 'being one' requires for individual things.
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    • 2.A form that is genuinely 'one over many' participates in its own nature only if self-predication holds, but self-predication leads to the Third Man regress, undermining the claim that any such form is coherently one.
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    Topics

    Modality & PossibilityTruth & Knowledge

    Connections

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    Philosophy of Language1 linked

    Related

    A form may have participants without itself being numerically one — it could be ...A form that is genuinely 'one over many' participates in its own nature only if ...Anything that is one 'over' many is (in some sense) one.Aristotle argues in Metaphysics Z that universals are not substances and therefo...
    +4 moreShow less
    For any plurality P of F things, there is a form of F-ness by virtue of partakin...Frege's distinction between concepts and objects shows that predicative entities...If 'oneness' is itself a form, then attributing oneness to every participating f...The form of F-ness is 'one over many' in the sense that it is that by virtue of ...

    Similar

    The one is a form84%Anything that is thought to be one over all the instances is a form.75%The one is one (from Oneness or Self-Predication)74%If forms do not allow self-predication, then forms are not participate...74%

    Source

    AI-extracted1/3 agreementValid
    SEP: plato-parmenides
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    Parmenides sets up the argument by pointing out that, according to the theory of forms, Oneness is supposed to follow from One-over-Many. (Some, e.g., Fine (1993, 204), claim that Plato means the sentence “each form is one” to express Uniqueness, not Oneness. But this is certainly not what a relevantly similar sentence expresses at Republic 476a2–6 and 524b7–11—see above.) From the existence of a plurality of F things and the fact that, for any such plurality P, there is a form of F-ness by virt
    Extraction notes

    Validity: Extracted via Max plan + API grounding/validity checks

    Details

    Type
    claim
    Perspectives
    3 (1 for, 2 against)
    Edits
    1 edit