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    Carmelics

    A reasoning platform. Break down any belief into clear reasons, explore both sides, and weigh the evidence honestly.

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    Made withinDC&Austin
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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Even within a single language, translation already occurs.

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    Reasons For

    2 perspectives
    Reason for 1 of 2
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    • 1.Translation requires a source language and a target language that are structurally distinct, not merely semantically ambiguous regions within one system.
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    • 2.Disambiguating polysemy within a language is an act of interpretation governed by shared grammatical rules, whereas translation crosses incommensurable rule-systems.
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    • 3.Conflating interpretation with translation equivocates on 'translation,' robbing the term of the theoretical work it must do in linguistics and philosophy of language.
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    Reason for 2 of 2
    ?
    • 1.Wittgenstein's rule-following considerations show that competent speakers resolve ambiguity via community practice, not a translation-like mediation between rival meanings.
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    • 2.If intra-linguistic ambiguity already constituted translation, then successful communication within a language would be inexplicable, yet such communication is demonstrably routine.
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    Reasons Against

    1 perspective
    Reason against
    ?
    • 1.An idiom within one language can carry multiple, undecidable meanings that require interpretation.
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    • 2.The act of choosing between those meanings constitutes a form of translation.
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    • 3.Therefore Babelization — the plurality associated with multiple languages — is already present within a single language.
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    Strongest counterpoint
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