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    Carmelics

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    Home/Original/inverse
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    Inverse View

    It is not the case that Kant's concept of beauty is essentially the same as Wolff's and Moritz's conception of beauty

    ?Set your confidence on the premises below to see your aggregate.

    Reasons For

    2 perspectives
    Reason for 1 of 2
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    • 1.Kant explicitly rejects Wolff's rationalist reduction of beauty to sensible perfection, arguing perfection requires a determinate concept of what the object ought to be.
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    • 2.For Kant, beauty involves a free play of imagination and understanding with no determinate concept, making it categorically distinct from Wolffian perfection judgments.
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    • 3.Kant's Critique of Judgment §15 directly argues that beauty and perfection are incompatible predicates, a distinction Wolff's framework cannot accommodate.
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    Reason for 2 of 2
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    • 1.Moritz grounds beauty in the self-sufficiency of the artwork as a completed whole serving its own internal purpose, a teleology still governed by the object's intrinsic ends.
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    • 2.Kant's purposiveness without purpose is a subjective condition of the judging subject's mental state, not an objective property or internal teleology of the artwork itself.
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    • 3.Collapsing Moritz's objective internal purposiveness with Kant's subjective reflective judgment conflates an ontological claim about artworks with an epistemological claim about aesthetic experience.
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    Reasons Against

    1 perspective
    Reason against
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    • 1.Kant's concept of 'purposiveness without purpose' is, according to Moritz, nothing other than an 'ideal purpose'
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    • 2.Moritz's conception of beauty aligns with Wolff's conception of beauty as sensible perfection
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    Next step

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    Strongest counterpoint
    Explore the most compelling reason on the other side.