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    Mixing one's labor with an already-owned object is no dif... — Carmelics
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    Challenges→If labor-mixing generates property claims, it should generate co-ownership claims over already-owned objects, not just claims over unowned objects

    Mixing one's labor with an already-owned object is no different in kind from mixing it with an unowned object

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    Related propositions within the same area of thought.
    The labor-mixing principle, if valid, should apply consistently regardless of th...
    Therefore restricting labor-mixing claims to unowned goods is arbitrary

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    Laboring on an unowned object mixes one's labor with that object.90%When one mixes one's labor with an unowned object, the labor is expend...88%When one's owned labor is mixed with something unowned, the unowned th...88%If mixing owned labor with unowned things generated ownership, then mi...86%

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    This argument suffers from well-known problems. For instance, since laboring is an activity, the idea of mixing it with an object seems at best a metaphor for something else. But in that case, the argument is incomplete: we still need to know what really grounds property rights (Waldron 1988). More importantly, it simply is not true that mixing something owned with something unowned is sufficient for appropriation. As Nozick pointed out, if I pour a can of tomato juice that I own into the unowne

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